I'm dipping my toes into lattice-based cryptography, but the difference between the SVP and CVP confuses me. I'm most definitely missing something big here, but I still couldn't figure it out, so I'm asking for your help.
Imagine we can solve SVP (which I understand as finding the closest to zero, but nonzero vector of the lattice). Let's shift the origin to the target vector, solve SVP there and shift the answer back. Why doesn't this give a solution to a CVP?
I'm assuming the reduction is incorrect due to this question and it's answer suggesting it is not trivial to reduce CVP to SVP.